LIPPINCOT EXERCISE 1
Tracheostomy cuff inflation and deflation: Results
What information should you include when documenting tracheostomy care?
Which complication may result from removing a blocked tracheostomy tube?
How should you position a patient to inflate a tracheostomy cuff?
When can you begin to perform clean tracheostomy care?
The purpose of an uncuffed, fenestrated tube is to:
Which complication may occur from replacing an expelled tracheostomy tube?
For which complication should you monitor a patient with a tracheostomy?
The primary benefit of using an uncuffed tracheostomy tube is that it:
In which situation should you suspect a tracheal cuff leak?
Family member present during the procedure | |
Stoma and skin condition | |
Number of staff members on duty | |
Number of tracheostomy sets used |
Rationale: You should include the patient's stoma and skin condition in your documentation.
Which complication may result from removing a blocked tracheostomy tube?
Increased infection | |
Fever | |
Airway closure | |
Decreased carbon dioxide levels |
Rationale:
If a patient's tracheostomy becomes blocked for any reason (such as
secretions that can't be suctioned), don't remove the tracheostomy tube
entirely because doing so may allow the airway to completely close.
How should you position a patient to inflate a tracheostomy cuff?
Prone | |
Semi-Fowler's position | |
Side-lying | |
Lithotomy |
Rationale:
Position a patient in semi-Fowler's or supine position with the head of
the bed elevated as tolerated when inflating a tracheostomy cuff.
When can you begin to perform clean tracheostomy care?
When the patient has a stable complete blood count | |
When the stoma has healed | |
When the doctor approves it | |
When the patient is discharged from the hospital |
Rationale:
Whichever tube is used, tracheostomy care should be performed using
sterile technique until the patient's stoma has healed to prevent
infection.
The purpose of an uncuffed, fenestrated tube is to:
permit better suctioning. | |
cause a more aesthetic appearance. | |
permit mechanical ventilation. | |
allow speech. |
Rationale:
A plastic fenestrated tube permits speech through the upper airway when
the external opening is capped and the cuff is deflated.
Which complication may occur from replacing an expelled tracheostomy tube?
Trauma to the airway | |
Hypoxia | |
Patient discomfort | |
Infection |
Rationale:
Use extreme caution when attempting to reinsert an expelled
tracheostomy tube because of the risk of tracheal trauma, perforation,
compression, and asphyxiation. Reassure the patient until the doctor
arrives.
For which complication should you monitor a patient with a tracheostomy?
Poor patient compliance | |
Improved oxygenation | |
Decreased secretions in the airway | |
Tracheal necrosis |
Rationale: The presence of the tube or excessive cuff pressure can produce tracheal erosion and necrosis.
The primary benefit of using an uncuffed tracheostomy tube is that it:
blocks air completely from moving through the trachea. | |
reduces the risk of tracheal tube damage. | |
works well in patients who are unconscious. | |
can be used for patients receiving mechanical ventilation. |
Rationale:
An uncuffed tracheostomy tube, which may be plastic or metal, allows
air to flow freely around the tracheostomy tube and through the larynx,
reducing the risk of tracheal damage.
In which situation should you suspect a tracheal cuff leak?
If respiratory pressures are adequate | |
If the patient can't speak while the cuff is inflated | |
If the cuff pressure exceeds previously documented pressures | |
If the cuff won't deflate |
Rationale:
Suspect a leak if the injection of air fails to inflate the cuff or
increase cuff pressure, if you can't inject the amount of air you
withdrew, if the patient can speak, if ventilation fails to maintain
adequate respiratory movement with pressures or volumes previously
considered adequate, or if air escapes during the ventilator's
inspiratory cycle.
Documentation: Results
Which documentation system is considered useful in acute care or long-term care settings only?
Which type of documentation system is considered useful in an acute care setting only?
Which documentation system uses evaluative statements, expected outcomes, and learning outcomes as the format for progress notes?
Which type of documentation system doesn't use a separate care plan and instead includes it in the progress notes?
Which documentation system uses a database and care plan for the assessment?
Which type of documentation system uses SOAP, SOAPIE, and SOAPIER as the format for progress notes?
Which type of documentation system includes discharge summaries with progress notes?
Which type of documentation system uses a care plan based on the problem list?
Which type of documentation system uses the "data, action, response" format for progress notes?
Which documentation system uses a database assessment sheet for the initial assessment?
Which documentation system is considered useful in acute care or long-term care settings only?
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
FOCUS | |
Narrative | |
Problem-oriented medical record |
Rationale: FOCUS is considered useful in acute care or long-term care settings only.
Which type of documentation system is considered useful in an acute care setting only?
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
Problem-oriented medical record | |
FOCUS | |
Narrative |
Rationale: The problem-intervention-evaluation system is considered useful in acute care settings only.
Which documentation system uses evaluative statements, expected outcomes, and learning outcomes as the format for progress notes?
Computerized | |
Core | |
Flow sheet, assessment, concise, timely | |
Charting by exception |
Rationale: The computerized system uses evaluative statements, expected outcomes, and learning outcomes as the format for progress notes.
Which type of documentation system doesn't use a separate care plan and instead includes it in the progress notes?
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
FOCUS | |
Problem-oriented medical record | |
Narrative |
Rationale: The problem-intervention-evaluation system doesn't include a separate care plan; it's included in the progress notes.
Which documentation system uses a database and care plan for the assessment?
Narrative | |
FOCUS | |
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
Problem-oriented medical record |
Rationale: The problem-oriented medical record uses a database and care plan for the assessment.
Which type of documentation system uses SOAP, SOAPIE, and SOAPIER as the format for progress notes?
Narrative | |
Problem-oriented medical record | |
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
FOCUS |
Rationale: The problem-oriented medical record uses SOAP, SOAPIE, and SOAPIER as the format for progress notes.
Which type of documentation system includes discharge summaries with progress notes?
Narrative | |
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
FOCUS | |
Problem-oriented medical record |
Rationale: The narrative documentation system includes discharge summaries along with progress notes.
Which type of documentation system uses a care plan based on the problem list?
Narrative | |
Problem-oriented medical record | |
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
FOCUS |
Rationale: The problem-oriented medical record uses a nursing care plan based on a problem list.
Which type of documentation system uses the "data, action, response" format for progress notes?
Problem-oriented medical record | |
Problem-intervention-evaluation | |
FOCUS | |
Narrative |
Rationale: FOCUS uses the data, action, and response format for progress notes.
Which documentation system uses a database assessment sheet for the initial assessment?
Core | |
Charting by exception | |
Flow sheet, assessment, concise, timely | |
Computerized |
Rationale: Charting by exception uses a database assessment sheet for the initial assessment.
Code management: Results
You should avoid placing defibrillation pads on:
If a patient doesn't have an IV access, you may administer someadvanced cardiac life support (ACLS) drugs:
Epinephrine acts to:
When a patient is orally intubated, you should:
A patient with ventricular fibrillation will most likely receive which medication first?
Which drug should you be prepared to administer when treating a patient with supraventricular tachycardia?
The typical adult dosage for atropine in symptomatic bradycardia is:
What size peripheral IV catheters are preferred in a code situation?
In a code situation, who usually provides the first resuscitative measures?
When giving drugs through the endotracheal (ET) tube, you should dilute the drugs with:
Which treatment best increases a patient's chance of survival in a code situation?
How does dobutamine work?
You should avoid placing defibrillation pads on:
a patient's bony prominence. | |
a patient's abdomen. | |
the back of a patient. | |
the front of a patient. |
Rationale: Conduction will decrease over bony prominences. Avoid placing defibrillation pads over a patient's bony prominences and hairy areas.
If a patient doesn't have an IV access, you may administer someadvanced cardiac life support (ACLS) drugs:
orally. | |
intramuscularly. | |
intraosseously. | |
sublingually. |
Rationale: ACLS drugs may be given intraosseously as an alternative to an IV.
Epinephrine acts to:
increase coronary perfusion pressure during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. | |
raise the fibrillation threshold. | |
decrease myocardial contractility without raising oxygen demand. | |
shorten the duration of atrial action potential during supraventricular tachycardia. |
Rationale: Through its alpha-adrenergic affects, epinephrine can increase coronary perfusion and cerebral perfusion during cardiopulmonary resuscitation.
When a patient is orally intubated, you should:
date the tape. | |
help ventilate the patient. | |
mark the endotracheal tube at the level of the patient's lips. | |
ask a respiratory therapist to check the tube's position. |
Rationale: Marking the endotracheal tube at the level of the patient's lips will serve as a reference point for checking placement.
A patient with ventricular fibrillation will most likely receive which medication first?
Atropine | |
Dobutamine | |
Epinephrine | |
Adenocard |
Rationale: According to the advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) algorithm, epinephrine is the drug of choice when treating ventricular fibrillation.
Which drug should you be prepared to administer when treating a patient with supraventricular tachycardia?
Epinephrine | |
Magnesium | |
Adenosine | |
Atropine |
Rationale: Adenosine slows conduction through the atrioventricular node and is effective in treating supraventricular tachycardia.
The typical adult dosage for atropine in symptomatic bradycardia is:
2 mg. | |
3 mg. | |
1 mg. | |
0.5 mg. |
Rationale: Atropine accelerates the atrioventricular conduction and heart rate by blocking the vagal nerve. For symptomatic bradycardia, give 0.5 mg IV push.
What size peripheral IV catheters are preferred in a code situation?
14G and 22G | |
14G and 18G | |
16G and 20G | |
20G and 22G |
Rationale: Large-gauge catheters, such as 14G and 18G, are preferred in a code situation because large volumes of IV fluid can be delivered through them quickly.
In a code situation, who usually provides the first resuscitative measures?
Advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) nurse | |
Basic life support (BLS) nurse | |
Nurse | |
Doctor |
Rationale: An ACLS-trained nurse can direct advanced cardiac measures (until the doctor arrives) and usually initiates the first resuscitative measures.
When giving drugs through the endotracheal (ET) tube, you should dilute the drugs with:
20 mL normal saline solution. | |
10 mL 0.45 normal saline. | |
10 mL dextrose 5% in water. | |
5 to 10 mL normal saline solution. |
Rationale: Drugs given through an ET tube should be diluted with 5 to 10 mL normal saline solution to improve absorption in the lungs.
Which treatment best increases a patient's chance of survival in a code situation?
Defibrillation and cardiopulmonary resuscitation | |
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation and drugs | |
Drugs and defibrillation | |
Defibrillation |
Rationale: A person usually has ventricular fibrillation when in a code situation. Defibrillation and cardiopulmonary resuscitation are the most important resuscitative measures.
How does dobutamine work?
Accelerates atrioventricular conduction | |
Increases heart rate and peripheral resistance | |
Produces a chronotropic effect | |
Improves myocardial contractility |
Rationale: Dobutamine acts to increase myocardial contractility without raising oxygen consumption.
Admission: Results
One goal of effective admission procedures is to:
If a patient brings medications from home:
Before greeting the patient, you should:
When a patient arrives on the nursing unit after emergency department treatment:
When should you prepare any necessary emergency or special equipment, such as oxygen or suction?
Care reminders placed at the head of the patient's bed should include such information as:
Your initial assessment should include height and weight measurements to:
After obtaining the patient's history, complete a physical assessment with an emphasis on the patient's:
An efficient admission routine can:
One goal of effective admission procedures is to:
determine the patient's religious beliefs. | |
make the patient as comfortable as possible. | |
complete the admission process quickly. | |
verify the patient's insurance information. |
Rationale: Effective admission procedures should accomplish the following goals: Verify the patient's identity using two patient identifiers according to the facility's policy; assess his clinical status; make him as comfortable as possible; introduce him to roommates and staff; orient him to the environment and routine; and provide supplies and special equipment needed for daily care.
If a patient brings medications from home:
put them with the hospital-dispensed medications to be administered to the patient, as long the patient's name is on the label. | |
send authorized medications to the pharmacy for identification and relabeling. | |
flush them down the patient's toilet, so he can observe that they were discarded. | |
place them in a bag and store them with the patient's clothing and other personal belongings. |
Rationale: If a patient brings medications from home, send authorized medications to the pharmacy for identification and relabeling. Send other medications home with a responsible family member, or store them in the designated area outside the patient's room until he's discharged. Use of unauthorized medication may interfere with treatment or cause an overdose.
Before greeting the patient, you should:
review visiting hours and any restrictions. | |
introduce the patient to all the unit staff. | |
review the admission form and the doctor's orders. | |
orient the patient to the environment and unit routine. |
Rationale: Quickly review the admission form and the doctor's orders. Note the reason for admission, any restrictions on activity or diet, and any orders for diagnostic tests requiring specimen collection.
When a patient arrives on the nursing unit after emergency department treatment:
ask the patient what was done to him in the emergency department. | |
receive hand-off communication from the nurse who cared for the patient in the emergency department. | |
ask the patient why he's being admitted to the facility. | |
remove his temporary identification bracelet. |
Rationale: When a patient arrives on the nursing unit from emergency department treatment, receive hand-off communication from the nurse who cared for the patient in the emergency department to ensure continuity of care.
When should you prepare any necessary emergency or special equipment, such as oxygen or suction?
Immediately after the patient arrives on the unit | |
Before the patient arrives on the unit | |
After you've finished an assessment of the patient's clinical status | |
When the patient begins to show signs of distress |
Rationale: Before the patient arrives on the unit, prepare any emergency or special equipment, such as oxygen or suction.
Care reminders placed at the head of the patient's bed should include such information as:
allergies and dietary and fluid restrictions. | |
the patient's diagnosis if he has a communicable disease. | |
scheduled surgical procedures. | |
the patient's name, age, and date of birth. |
Rationale: Care reminders placed at the head of the patient's bed should include such information as allergies; dietary and fluid restrictions; and special instructions, including turning schedules and activity restrictions to notify unit staff.
Your initial assessment should include height and weight measurements to:
determine where to place footboards on the bed. | |
determine the patient's body mass index. | |
calculate medication and anesthetic dosages. | |
start the patient on a weight-reduction diet if necessary. |
Rationale: Knowing the patient's height and weight is important for planning treatment and diet and for calculating medication and anesthetic dosages.
After obtaining the patient's history, complete a physical assessment with an emphasis on the patient's:
reflexes. | |
emotional state. | |
level of fatigue. | |
complaints. |
Rationale: After obtaining the patient's history, complete a physical assessment with an emphasis on the patient's complaints.
An efficient admission routine can:
ease the patient's anxiety and promote cooperation. | |
aggravate the patient's symptoms. | |
impair the patient's response to treatment. | |
heighten the patient's anxiety and reduce cooperation. |
Rationale: Admission routines that are efficient can ease the patient's anxiety and promote cooperation and receptivity to treatment.
Ulasan